Derivatives of Inverse Functions

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Suppose that f is a one-to-one differentiable function, is its inverse g also differentiable ? Recall that if f is differentiable at x = a then the graph of f has a tangent line at ( a , f ( a )) and the slope of the tangent line is f ' ( a ). Let's take a look at the following animation :

[Maple Plot]

 

 

Since the graph of f and g are symmetric with respect to y = x , from the animation above, we see that the reflection of the tangent line to the graph of f at ( a , f ( a )) with respect to y = x is the tangent line to  the graph of g at ( f ( a ), a ).

We know that the equation of the tangent line to the graph of f at 

( a , f ( a )) is

y = f ( a ) + f ' ( a ) ( x - a ) ,

If f ' ( a ) does not equal to 0, then its reflection with respect to y = x is given by

y = a +(1/ f ' ( a )) ( x - f ( a )),

 

then g should be differentiable at ( f ( a ), a ) and 

g' ( f ( a )) =1/ f ' ( a ),  that is, g' ( b ) = 1/ f ' ( g ( b )) where b = f ( a ).

 

If f ' ( a ) = 0, the graph of f has a horizontal tangent at ( a , f ( a )),

and the reflection of a horizontal line with respect to y = x is a vertical line, then the graph of g has a vertical tangent at ( f ( a ), a )  and g is not differentiable at f ( a ).

In fact, it is not hard to verify this algebraically. Let y = f ( x ),

b = f ( a ), then g ( y ) = x , g ( b ) = a , and

(g(y)-g(b))/(y-b) = (x-a)/(f(x)-f(a)) = 1/((f(x)-f(a))/(x-a))

Since g is continuous at b ( Why ?),  we get x approaches a  

( x <> a ) as y approaches b.  

The fact

(f(x)-f(a))/(x-a) <> 0

implies that

limit((g(y)-g(b))/(y-b),y = b) = 1/limit((f(x)-f(a)... = 1/ f ' ( a )

 

Thus,

g' ( b ) = 1/ f ' ( g ( b ))

 

Another way to get the formula above, provided that g is also differentiable, is using the Chain Rule. By the definition of the inverse function, we have

f ( g ( y )) = y for all y in the domain of g

 

Differentiating both sides of the equation with respect to y , we get

f ' ( g ( y )) g' ( y ) = 1.

 

Thus, if f ' ( g ( y )) does not equal to 0, then

g' ( y ) = 1/ f ' ( g ( y )).

 

 

Derivatives of Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Recall that the function arcsin( x ) from [-1,1] to [-pi/2, pi/2]is the inverse of the sine function with domain restricted to [-pi/2, pi/2] . That is,   

y = arcsin( x ) if and only if sin( y ) = x and y is in [-pi/2, pi/2].

Note that d/(d*x) sin(x) = cos(x) <> 0 for all x in ( -pi/2, pi/2 ), hence f ( x ) = arcsin( x ) is differentiable for all x in ( -1, 1 ).


[Maple Plot]

 

For all x in ( -1, 1 ), by differentiating with respect to x both sides of the equation

sin( arcsin( x )) = x ,

 

we have

cos(arcsin( x )) d/(d*x) arcsin( x ) = 1

and

d/(d*x)arcsin(x) = 1/cos(arcsin(x)) .

Since cos(theta) > 0 for all theta in ( -pi/2, pi/2 ), we get

cos(arcsin(x)) = sqrt(1-sin(arcsin(x))^2) = sqrt(1-x^2) .

Thus,

d/(d*x) arcsin(x) = 1/sqrt(1-x^2) , for all x in ( -1, 1 ).

 

Again, the function arccos( x ) from [-1,1] to [0, pi] is the inverse of the cosine function with domain restricted to [0, pi] . That is,

y = arccos( x ) if and only if cos( y ) = x and y is in [0, pi] .

 

Note that d/(d*x) cos(x) = -sin(x) <> 0 for all x in ( 0, pi ), hence f ( x ) = arccos( x ) is differentiable for all x in ( -1, 1 ).

[Maple Plot]

 

For all x in ( -1, 1 ), by differentiating with respect to x both sides of the equation

cos( arccos( x )) = x ,

we have

-sin(arccos(x))d/(d*x)arccos( x ) = 1

and

d/(d*x)arccos(x) = -1/sin(arccos(x)) .

 

Since sin(theta) > 0 for all theta in ( 0, pi ), we get

 

sin(arccos(x)) = sqrt(1-cos(arccos(x))^2)=sqrt(1-x^2) .

Thus,

d/(d*x)arccos(x) = -1/sqrt(1-x^2) , for all x in ( -1, 1 ).

Notice that d/(d*x)(arcsin( x ) + arccos( x )) = 0, what does this imply?[Maple Plot]

Similarly, the function arctan( x ) is the inverse of the function

y = tan( x ) with domain restricted to ( -pi/2, pi/2 ). That is,  

y = arctan( x ) if and only if tan( y ) = x and y is in ( -pi/2, pi/2 )  .

Note that the lines x = -pi/2 and x = pi/2 are vertical asymptotes of the curve y = tan( x ), and the lines y = -pi/2 and y = pi/2 are horizontal asymptotes of the curve y = arctan( x ).

 

Since d/(d*x)tan(x) = sec(x)^2 <> 0 for all x in ( -pi/2, pi/2 ), 

y = arctan( x ) is differentiable for all real number x .

[Maple Plot]

 

For all real number x , by differentiating with respect to x both sides of the equation

sin( arctan( x )) = x ,

 

we have

sec(arctan(x))^2d/(d*x)arctan( x ) = 1

and

d/(d*x)arctan(x) = 1/(sec(arctan(x))^2) .

 

Since

sec(arctan(x))^2 = 1+tan(arctan(x))^2 = 1+x^2 .

we get,

d/(d*x)arcsin(x) = 1/(1+x^2) , for all x .

 

The derivatives of the remaining three inverse trigonometric functions are given below. The proofs of the formulas are left as exercises .

d/(d*x) arccot(x) = -1/(1+x^2) , for all x,

d/(d*x) arcsec(x) = 1/(x*sqrt(x^2-1)) , for all abs(x) > 1,

d/(d*x) arccsc(x) = -1/(x*sqrt(x^2-1)) , for all abs(x) > 1.

 

 

Derivatives of Logarithmic Functions

 

Recall that exp(x) is an strictly increasing function and its inverse y = ln(x) is defined for all x > 0.

[Maple Plot]

 

Since d/(d*x)exp(x) = exp(x) > 0 for all x , ln(x) is also differentiable for all x > 0 .  For all x > 0, by differentiating both sides of the equation

exp(ln(x)) = x  ,

we get

exp(ln(x)) d/(d*x) ln(x) = x d/(d*x) ln(x) = 1 .

Hence ,

d/(d*x) ln(x) = 1/x for all x > 0.

 

Let a be a positive number ( a <> 1 ), by the Change of Base formula, we have

log[a](x) = ln(x)/ln(a) .

 

Hence, y = log[a](x) is differentiable for all x > 0 and

d/(d*x) log[a](x) = 1/(x*ln(a)) .

 

 

Logarithmic Differentiation

We have shown that for all rational number r 

d/(d*x)x^r = r*x^(r-1)  

whenever the formula makes sense.  Does the formula hold for irrational r ? If r is irrational, let's take a look how y = x^r is defined.

By Exponential laws, we have ln(y) = r*ln(x) , and so y = exp(r*ln(x)) for all x > 0.  Therefore, y = x^r is differentiable for all x > 0  and

d/(d*x) x^r = exp(r*ln(x))*r/x = x^r*r/x = r*x^(r-1) .

 

Finally, how is the function f(x) = x^xdefined and what is its domain ? Is it differentiable ?  If so, what is its derivative function ?

For each x > 0, let y = x^x , so ln(y) = x*ln(x) and then y = exp(x*ln(x)).  Since both exp(x) and x*ln(x) are differentiable, f(x) = x^xis differentiable and

d/(d*x) x^x = exp(x*ln(x))*(ln(x)+1) = x^x*(ln(x)+1) .

 

There is another way to calculate the derivative :

First, we take logarithms of both sides of the equation f(x) = x^x , then

ln(f(x)) = x*ln(x)

Differentiating both sides with respect to gives :

1/f(x) f ' ( x ) = ln(x)+1

Solving for f ' ( x ), we have

f ' ( x ) = f ( x ) ( ln( x ) + 1) = x^x*(ln(x)+1) .

 

The method used above is called Logarithmic Differentiation, which is a powerful tool to calculate derivatives of complicated functions involving products, quotients or powers.

Example : Differentiate y = x^(3/4)*sqrt(x^2+1)/((3*x+2)^5) .

First, we take logarithms of both sides of the equation and use the Laws of Logarithms to simplify :

ln(y) = 3/4*ln(x)+ln(x^2+1)/2-5*ln(3*x+2)

Differentiating both sides with respect to x gives :

1/y d*y/(d*x) = 3/4 1/x+x/ln(x^2+1)-15/(3*x+2)

Solving for f ' ( x ), we have

d*y/(d*x) = x^(3/4)*sqrt(x^2+1)/((3*x+2)^5) ( 3/(4*x)+x/ln(x^2+1)-15/(3*x+2) ).


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